Choosing the Right Path for Your CCSP Exam Preparation
Welcome to PassExamHub's comprehensive study guide for the Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) exam. Our CCSP dumps is designed to equip you with the knowledge and resources you need to confidently prepare for and succeed in the CCSP certification exam.
What Our ISC2 CCSP Study Material Offers
PassExamHub's CCSP dumps PDF is carefully crafted to provide you with a comprehensive and effective learning experience. Our study material includes:
In-depth Content: Our study guide covers all the key concepts, topics, and skills you need to master for the CCSP exam. Each topic is explained in a clear and concise manner, making it easy to understand even the most complex concepts.
Online Test Engine: Test your knowledge and build your confidence with a wide range of practice questions that simulate the actual exam format. Our test engine cover every exam objective and provide detailed explanations for both correct and incorrect answers.
Exam Strategies: Get valuable insights into exam-taking strategies, time management, and how to approach different types of questions.
Real-world Scenarios: Gain practical insights into applying your knowledge in real-world scenarios, ensuring you're well-prepared to tackle challenges in your professional career.
Why Choose PassExamHub?
Expertise: Our CCSP exam questions answers are developed by experienced ISC2 certified professionals who have a deep understanding of the exam objectives and industry best practices.
Comprehensive Coverage: We leave no stone unturned in covering every topic and skill that could appear on the CCSP exam, ensuring you're fully prepared.
Engaging Learning: Our content is presented in a user-friendly and engaging format, making your study sessions enjoyable and effective.
Proven Success: Countless students have used our study materials to achieve their CCSP certifications and advance their careers.
Start Your Journey Today!
Embark on your journey to Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) success with PassExamHub. Our study material is your trusted companion in preparing for the CCSP exam and unlocking exciting career opportunities.
Related Exams
ISC2 CCSP Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
What are the U.S. Commerce Department controls on technology exports known as?
A. ITAR B. DRM C. EAR D. EAL
Answer: C Explanation: EAR is a Commerce Department program. Evaluation assurance levels are part of the Common Criteria standard from ISO. Digital rights management tools are used for protecting electronic processing of intellectual property
Question # 2
Cloud systems are increasingly used for BCDR solutions for organizations.
What aspect of cloud computing makes their use for BCDR the most attractive?
A. On-demand self-service B. Measured service C. Portability D. Broad network access
Answer: B Explanation: Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) solutions largely sit idle until they are
actually needed. This traditionally has led to increased costs for an organization because
physical hardware must be purchased and operational but is not used. By using a cloud
system, an organization will only pay for systems when they are being used and only for
the duration of use, thus eliminating the need for extra hardware and costs. Portability is
the ability to easily move services among different cloud providers. Broad network access
allows access to users and staff from anywhere and from different clients, and although this
would be important for a BCDR situation, it is not the best answer in this case. On-demand
self-service allows users to provision services automatically and when needed, and
although this too would be important for BCDR situations, it is not the best answer because
it does not address costs or the biggest benefits to an organization.
Question # 3
With the rapid emergence of cloud computing, very few regulations were in place that
pertained to it specifically, and organizations often had to resort to using a collection of
regulations that were not specific to cloud in order to drive audits and policies.
Which standard from the ISO/IEC was designed specifically for cloud computing?
A. ISO/IEC 27001 B. ISO/IEC 19889 C. ISO/IEC 27001:2015 D. ISO/IEC 27018
Answer: D Explanation: ISO/IEC 27018 was implemented to address the protection of personal and sensitive information within a cloud environment. ISO/IEC 27001 and its later 27001:2015 revision are both general-purpose data security standards. ISO/IEC 19889 is an erroneous answer.
Question # 4
When reviewing the BIA after a cloud migration, the organization should take into account
new factors related to data breach impacts. One of these new factors is:
A. Many states have data breach notification laws. B. Breaches can cause the loss of proprietary data. C. Breaches can cause the loss of intellectual property. D. Legal liability can’t be transferred to the cloud provider.
Answer: D Explanation: State notification laws and the loss of proprietary data/intellectual property pre-existed the cloud; only the lack of ability to transfer liability is ne
Question # 5
DLP solutions can aid in deterring loss due to which of the following?
A. Inadvertent disclosure B. Natural disaster C. Randomization D. Device failure
Answer: A Explanation: DLP solutions may protect against inadvertent disclosure. Randomization is a technique for obscuring data, not a risk to data. DLP tools will not protect against risks from natural disasters, or against impacts due to device failure.
Question # 6
What is the intellectual property protection for the tangible expression of a creative idea?
A. Trade secret B. Copyright C. Trademark D. Patent
Answer: B Explanation: Copyrights are protected tangible expressions of creative works. The other answers listed are answers to subsequent questions.
Question # 7
Which of the following is NOT considered a type of data loss?
A. Data corruption B. Stolen by hackers C. Accidental deletion D. Lost or destroyed encryption keys
Answer: B Explanation: The exposure of data by hackers is considered a data breach. Data loss focuses on the data availability rather than security. Data loss occurs when data becomes lost, unavailable, or destroyed, when it should not have been.
Question # 8
All of the following are techniques to enhance the portability of cloud data, in order to
minimize the potential of vendor lock-in except:
A. Ensure there are no physical limitations to moving B. Use DRM and DLP solutions widely throughout the cloud operation C. Ensure favorable contract terms to support portability D. Avoid proprietary data formats
Answer: B Explanation: DRM and DLP are used for increased authentication/access control and egress monitoring, respectively, and would actually decrease portability instead of enhancing it.
Question # 9
Which of the following statements about Type 1 hypervisors is true?
A. The hardware vendor and software vendor are different. B. The hardware vendor and software vendor are the same C. The hardware vendor provides an open platform for software vendors. D. The hardware vendor and software vendor should always be different for the sake of security.
Answer: B Explanation: With a Type 1 hypervisor, the management software and hardware are tightly tied together and provided by the same vendor on a closed platform. This allows for optimal security, performance, and support. The other answers are all incorrect descriptions of a Type 1 hypervisor.
Question # 10
Which data protection strategy would be useful for a situation where the ability to remove
sensitive data from a set is needed, but a requirement to retain the ability to map back to
the original values is also present?
A. Masking B. Tokenization C. Encryption D. Anonymization
Answer: B Explanation: Tokenization involves the replacement of sensitive data fields with key or token values, which can ultimately be mapped back to the original, sensitive data values. Masking refers to the overall approach to covering sensitive data, and anonymization is a type of masking, where indirect identifiers are removed from a data set to prevent the mapping back of data to an individual. Encryption refers to the overall process of protecting data via key pairs and protecting confidentiality.
Question # 11
Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?
A. Overwriting B. Nullification C. Blanking D. Deleting
Answer: A Explanation: The zeroing of data--or the writing of null values or arbitrary data to ensure deletion has
been fully completed--is officially referred to as overwriting. Nullification, deleting, and
blanking are provided as distractor terms.
Question # 12
Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?
A. Software as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Desktop as a Service
Answer: A Explanation: SaaS most commonly uses client-side key management. With this type of implementation, the software for doing key management is supplied by the cloud provider, but is hosted and run by the cloud customer. This allows for full integration with the SaaS implementation, but also provides full control to the cloud customer. Although the cloud provider may offer software for performing key management to the cloud customers, with the Infrastructure, Platform, and Desktop as a Service categories, the customers would largely be responsible for their own options and implementations and would not be bound by the offerings from the cloud provider.
Question # 13
What are the U.S. State Department controls on technology exports known as?
A. DRM B. ITAR C. EAR D. EAL
Answer: B Explanation: ITAR is a Department of State program. Evaluation assurance levels are part of the Common Criteria standard from ISO. Digital rights management tools are used for protecting electronic processing of intellectual property.
Question # 14
There are many situations when testing a BCDR plan is appropriate or mandated. Which of the following would not be a necessary time to test a BCDR plan?
A. After software updates B. After regulatory changes C. After major configuration changes D. Annually
Answer: B Explanation: Regulatory changes by themselves would not trigger a need for new testing of a BCDR
plan. Any changes necessary for regulatory compliance would be accomplished through
configuration changes or software updates, which in turn would then trigger the necessary
new testing. Annual testing is crucial to any BCDR plan. Also, any time major configuration
changes or software updates are done, the plan should be evaluated and tested to ensure
it is still valid and complete.
Question # 15
BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but only
those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of data and services needed to reach the
predetermined level of operations?
A. SRE B. RPO C. RSL D. RTO
Answer: B Explanation: The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the predetermined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation. The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan. The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.c
Question # 16
Which of the following best describes SAML?
A. A standard used for directory synchronization B. A standard for developing secure application management logistics C. A standard for exchanging usernames and passwords across devices. D. A standards for exchanging authentication and authorization data between security domains.
Answer: D
Question # 17
Tokenization requires two distinct _________________ .
A. Personnel B. Authentication factors C. Encryption keys D. Databases
Answer: D Explanation: In order to implement tokenization, there will need to be two databases: the database containing the raw, original data, and the token database containing tokens that map to original data. Having two-factor authentication is nice, but certainly not required. Encryption keys are not necessary for tokenization. Two-person integrity does not have anything to do with tokenization.
Question # 18
A data custodian is responsible for which of the following?
A. Data context B. Data content C. The safe custody, transport, storage of the data, and implementation of business rules D. Logging access and alerts
Answer: C
Explanation:
A data custodian is responsible for the safe custody, transport, and storage of data, and the
implementation of business rolesc
Question # 19
When using an IaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
A. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. B. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the auditor is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. C. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the provider is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. D. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is not able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications.
Answer: A Explanation: According to “The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing,” in IaaS, “the capability provided to
the consumer is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental
computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software,
which can include operating systems and applications. The consumer does not manage or
control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage,
and deployed applications; and possibly limited control of select networking components
(e.g., host firewalls).
Question # 20
Because cloud providers will not give detailed information out about their infrastructures
and practices to the general public, they will often use established auditing reports to
ensure public trust, where the reputation of the auditors serves for assurance.
Which type of audit reports can be used for general public trust assurances?
A. SOC 2 B. SAS-70 C. SOC 3 D. SOC 1
Answer: C Explanation: SOC Type 3 audit reports are very similar to SOC Type 2, with the exception that they are intended for general release and public audiences.SAS-70 audits have been deprecated. SOC Type 1 audit reports have a narrow scope and are intended for very limited release, whereas SOC Type 2 audit reports are intended for wider audiences but not general release.
Question # 21
When an organization is considering the use of cloud services for BCDR planning and
solutions, which of the following cloud concepts would be the most important?
A. Reversibility B. Elasticity C. Interoperability D. Portability
Answer: D Explanation: Portability is the ability for a service or system to easily move among different cloud providers. This is essential for using a cloud solution for BCDR because vendor lock-in would inhibit easily moving and setting up services in the event of a disaster, or it would necessitate a large number of configuration or component changes to implement.
Interoperability, or the ability to reuse components for other services or systems, would not
be an important factor for BCDR. Reversibility, or the ability to remove all data quickly and
completely from a cloud environment, would be important at the end of a disaster, but
would not be important during setup and deployment. Elasticity, or the ability to resize
resources to meet current demand, would be very beneficial to a BCDR situation, but not
as vital as portability
Question # 22
Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:
A. Remove all active production instances B. Ensure logging continues C. Initiate enhanced security controls D. Prevent new logins
Answer: C Explanation: While the other answers are all steps in moving from normal operations to maintenance mode, we do not necessarily initiate any enhanced security controls
Question # 23
On large distributed systems with pooled resources, cloud computing relies on extensive
orchestration to maintain the environment and the constant provisioning of resources.
Which of the following is crucial to the orchestration and automation of networking
resources within a cloud?
A. DNSSEC B. DNS C. DCOM D. DHCP
Answer: D Explanation: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically configures network
settings for a host so that these settings do not need to be configured on the host statically.
Given the rapid and programmatic provisioning of resources within a cloud environment,
this capability is crucial to cloud operations. Both DNS and its security-integrity extension
DNSSEC provide name resolution to IP addresses, but neither is used for the configuration
of network settings on a host. DCOM refers to the Distributed Component Object Model,
which was developed by Microsoft as a means to request services across a network, and is
not used for network configurations at all.
Question # 24
Web application firewalls (WAFs) are designed primarily to protect applications from
common attacks like:
A. Ransomware B. Syn floods C. XSS and SQL injection D. Password cracking
Answer: C Explanation:
WAFs detect how the application interacts with the environment, so they are optimal for
detecting and refuting things like SQL injection and XSS. Password cracking, syn floods,
and ransomware usually aren’t taking place in the same way as injection and XSS, and
they are better addressed with controls at the router and through the use of HIDS, NIDS,
and antimalware tools.
Question # 25
Which format is the most commonly used standard for exchanging information within a
federated identity system?
A. XML B. HTML C. SAML D. JSON
Answer: C Explanation: Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most common data format for
information exchange within a federated identity system. It is used to transmit and
exchange authentication and authorization data.XML is similar to SAML, but it's used for
general-purpose data encoding and labeling and is not used for the exchange of
authentication and authorization data in the way that SAML is for federated systems. JSON
is used similarly to XML, as a text-based data exchange format that typically uses attributevalue pairings, but it's not used for authentication and authorization exchange. HTML is
used only for encoding web pages for web browsers and is not used for data exchange--
and certainly not in a federated system.
Question # 26
What is a key capability or characteristic of PaaS?
A. Support for a homogenous environment B. Support for a single programming language C. Ability to reduce lock-in D. Ability to manually scale
Answer: C Explanation: PaaS should have the following key capabilities and characteristics:
- Support multiple languages and frameworks: PaaS should support multiple programming
languages and frameworks, thus enabling the developers to code in whichever language
they prefer or the design requirements specify. In recent times, significant strides and
efforts have been taken to ensure that open source stacks are both supported and utilized,
thus reducing “lock-in” or issues with interoperability when changing CSPs.
- Multiple hosting environments: The ability to support a wide variety of underlying hosting
environments for the platform is key to meeting customer requirements and demands.
Whether public cloud, private cloud, local hypervisor, or bare metal, supporting multiple
hosting environments allows the application developer or administrator to migrate the
application when and as required. This can also be used as a form of contingency and
continuity and to ensure the ongoing availability.
- Flexibility: Traditionally, platform providers provided features and requirements that they
felt suited the client requirements, along with what suited their service offering and
positioned them as the provider of choice, with limited options for the customers to move
easily. This has changed drastically, with extensibility and flexibility now afforded to
meeting the needs and requirements of developer audiences. This has been heavily
influenced by open source, which allows relevant plug-ins to be quickly and efficiently
introduced into the platform.
- Allow choice and reduce lock-in: PaaS learns from previous horror stories and
restrictions, proprietary meant red tape, barriers, and restrictions on what developers could
do when it came to migration or adding features and components to the platform. Although
the requirement to code to specific APIs was made available by the providers, they could
run their apps in various environments based on commonality and standard API structures,
ensuring a level of consistency and quality for customers and users.
- Ability to auto-scale: This enables the application to seamlessly scale up and down as
required to accommodate the cyclical demands of users. The platform will allocate
resources and assign these to the application as required. This serves as a key driver for
any seasonal organizations that experience spikes and drops in usage.
Question # 27
Which of the following is the primary purpose of an SOC 3 report?
A. HIPAA compliance B. Absolute assurances C. Seal of approval D. Compliance with PCI/DSS
Answer: C Explanation: The SOC 3 report is more of an attestation than a full evaluation of controls associated with a service provider.
Question # 28
The application normative framework is best described as which of the following?
A. A superset of the ONF B. A stand-alone framework for storing security practices for the ONF C. The complete ONF D. A subnet of the ONF
Answer: D Explanation: Remember, there is a one-to-many ratio of ONF to ANF; each organization has one ONF and many ANFs (one for each application in the organization). Therefore, the ANF is a subset of the ONF.
Question # 29
Whereas a contract articulates overall priorities and requirements for a business
relationship, which artifact enumerates specific compliance requirements, metrics, and
response times?
A. Service level agreement B. Service level contract C. Service compliance contract D. Service level amendment
Answer: A Explanation: The service level agreement (SLA) articulates minimum requirements for uptime, availability, processes, customer service and support, security controls, auditing requirements, and any other key aspect or requirement of the contract. Although the other choices sound similar to the correct answer, none is the proper term for this concep
Question # 30
Legal controls refer to which of the following?
A. ISO 27001 B. PCI DSS C. NIST 800-53r4 D. Controls designed to comply with laws and regulations related to the cloud environment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Legal controls are those controls that are designed to comply with laws and regulations
whether they be local or international.
Question # 31
Different security testing methodologies offer different strategies and approaches to testing
systems, requiring security personnel to determine the best type to use for their specific
circumstances.
What does dynamic application security testing (DAST) NOT entail that SAST does?
A. Discovery B. Knowledge of the system C. Scanning D. Probing
Answer: B Explanation: Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is considered "black-box" testing and begins with no inside knowledge of the application or its configurations. Everything about it must be discovered during its testing. As with most types of testing, dynamic application security testing (DAST) involves probing, scanning, and a discovery process for system information.
Question # 32
When data discovery is undertaken, three main approaches or strategies are commonly
used to determine what the type of data, its format, and composition are for the purposes of
classification.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main approaches to data discovery?
A. Content analysis B. Hashing C. Labels D. Metadata
Answer: B Explanation: Hashing involves taking a block of data and, through the use of a one-way operation,
producing a fixed-size value that can be used for comparison with other data. It is used
primarily for protecting data and allowing for rapid comparison when matching data values
such as passwords. Labels involve looking for header information or other categorizations
of data to determine its type and possible classifications. Metadata involves looking at
information attributes of the data, such as creator, application, type, and so on, in
determining classification. Content analysis involves examining the actual data itself for its
composition and classification level.
Question # 33
In a cloud environment, encryption should be used for all the following, except:
A. Secure sessions/VPN B. Long-term storage of data C. Near-term storage of virtualized images D. Profile formatting
Answer: D Explanation: All of these activities should incorporate encryption, except for profile formatting, which is a made-up term.
Question # 34
IRM solutions allow an organization to place different restrictions on data usage than would
otherwise be possible through traditional security controls.
Which of the following controls would be possible with IRM that would not with traditional
security controls?
A. Copy B. Read C. Delete D. Print
Answer: D Explanation: Traditional security controls would not be able to restrict a user from printing something that they have the ability to access and read, but IRM solutions would allow for such a restriction. If a user has permissions to read a file, he can also copy the file or print it under traditional controls, and the ability to modify or write will give the user the ability to delete.
Question # 35
Which of the following is considered a technological control?
A. Firewall software B. Firing personnel C. Fireproof safe D. Fire extinguisher
Answer: A Explanation:
A firewall is a technological control. The safe and extinguisher are physical controls and
firing someone is an administrative control.
Question # 36
Which ITIL component is an ongoing, iterative process of tracking all deployed and
configured resources that an organization uses and depends on, whether they are hosted
in a traditional data center or a cloud?
A. Problem management B. Continuity management C. Availability management D. Configuration management
Answer: D Explanation: Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur
Question # 37
Data labels could include all the following, except:
A. Data value B. Data of scheduled destruction C. Date data was created D. Data owner
Answer: A Explanation: All the others might be included in data labels, but we don’t usually include data value, since it is prone to change frequently, and because it might not be information we want to disclose to anyone who does not have need to know
Question # 38
Which of the following technologies is NOT commonly used for accessing systems and services in a cloud environment in a secure manner?
A. KVM B. HTTPS C. VPN D. TLS
Answer: A Explanation: A keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) system is commonly used for directly accessing server
terminals in a data center. It is not a method that would be possible within a cloud
environment, primarily due to the use virtualized systems, but also because only the cloud
provider's staff would be allowed the physical access to hardware systems that's provided
by a KVM. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), virtual private network (VPN), and
Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies and protocols that are widely used with
cloud implementations for secure access to systems and services.
Question # 39
The goals of SIEM solution implementation include all of the following, except:
A. Dashboarding B. Performance enhancement C. Trend analysis D. Centralization of log streams
Answer: B Explanation: SIEM does not intend to provide any enhancement of performance; in fact, a SIEM solution may decrease performance because of additional overhead. All the rest are goals of SIEM implementations.
Question # 40
Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?
A. Minimal management effort and shared resources B. High cost and unique resources C. Rapid provisioning and slow release of resources D. Limited access and service provider interaction
Answer: A Explanation: Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
Question # 41
Data masking can be used to provide all of the following functionality, except:
A. Secure remote access B. test data in sandboxed environments C. Authentication of privileged users D. Enforcing least privilege
Answer: C Explanation: Data masking does not support authentication in any way. All the others are excellent use cases for data masking.
Question # 42
What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers that
makes it unique compared to other common security testing methodologies?
A. Live testing B. Source code access C. Production system scanning D. Injection attempts
Answer: B
Explanation:
Static application security testing (SAST) is conducted against offline systems with
previous knowledge of them, including their source code. Live testing is not part of static
testing but rather is associated with dynamic testing. Production system scanning is not
appropriate because static testing is done against offline systems. Injection attempts are
done with many different types of testing and are not unique to one particular type. It is
therefore not the best answer to the question.
Question # 43
What is one of the reasons a baseline might be changed?
A. Numerous change requests B. To reduce redundancy C. Natural disaster D. Power fluctuation
Answer: A Explanation: If the CMB is receiving numerous change requests to the point where the amount of requests would drop by modifying the baseline, then that is a good reason to change the baseline. None of the other reasons should involve the baseline at all.
Question # 44
When using a PaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
A. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The provider does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment. B. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment. C. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the consumer supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment. D. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure provider-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to “The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing,” in PaaS, “the capability provided to
the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired
applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools supported by the provider. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud
infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control
over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the applicationhosting environment.
Question # 45
What are third-party providers of IAM functions for the cloud environment?
A. AESs B. SIEMs C. DLPs D. CASBs
Answer: D Explanation: Data loss, leak prevention, and protection is a family of tools used to reduce the possibility of unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information. SIEMs are tools used to collate and
manage log data. AES is an encryption standard.
Question # 46
A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor for
threats and issue alerts, and others that take action based on signatures, behavior, and
other types of rules to actively stop potential threats.
Which of the following types of technologies is best described here?
A. IDS B. IPS C. Proxy D. Firewall
Answer: B Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can inspect traffic and detect any suspicious traffic based on a variety of factors, but it can also actively block such traffic. Although an IDS can detect the same types of suspicious traffic as an IPS, it is only design to alert, not to block. A firewall is only concerned with IP addresses, ports, and protocols; it cannot be used for the signature-based detection of traffic. A proxy can limit or direct traffic based on more extensive factors than a network firewall can, but it's not capable of using the same signature detection rules as an IPS.
Question # 47
Which component of ITIL pertains to planning, coordinating, executing, and validating
changes and rollouts to production environments?
A. Release management B. Availability management C. Problem management D. Change management
Answer: A Explanation: Release management involves planning, coordinating, executing, and validating changes and rollouts to the production environment. Change management is a higher-level component than release management and also involves stakeholder and management approval, rather than specifically focusing the actual release itself. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur
Question # 48
All of these are methods of data discovery, except:
A. Label-based B. User-based C. Content-based D. Metadata-based
Answer: B
Explanation:
All the others are valid methods of data discovery; user-based is a red herring with no
meaning.
Question # 49
Which of the following terms is NOT a commonly used category of risk acceptance?
A. Moderate B. Critical C. Minimal D. Accepted
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation Accepted is not a risk acceptance category. The risk acceptance categories are minimal, low, moderate, high, and critical.
Question # 50
Which of the following is not an example of a highly regulated environment?
A. Financial services B. Healthcare C. Public companies D. Wholesale or distribution
Answer: D Explanation:
Wholesalers or distributors are generally not regulated, although the products they sell may
be.
Question # 51
Which of the following is a management role, versus a technical role, as it pertains to data
management and oversight?
A. Data owner B. Data processor C. Database administrator D. Data custodian
Answer: A Explanation: Data owner is a management role that's responsible for all aspects of how data is used and protected. The database administrator, data custodian, and data processor are all technical roles that involve the actual use and consumption of data, or the implementation of security controls and policies with the data.