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A systems administrator set up a perimeter firewall but continues to notice suspiciousconnections between internal endpoints. Which of the following should be set up in order tomitigate the threat posed by the suspicious activity?
A. Host-based firewall B. Web application firewall C. Access control list D. Application allow listc
Answer: A
Explanation: A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual
endpoint and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A
host-based firewall can help to mitigate the threat posed by suspicious connections
between internal endpoints by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source,
destination, port, protocol, or application. A host-based firewall is different from a web
application firewall, which is a type of firewall that protects web applications from common
web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and session hijacking. A
host-based firewall is also different from an access control list, which is a list of rules that
control the access to network resources, such as files, folders, printers, or routers. A hostbased
firewall is also different from an application allow list, which is a list of applications
that are authorized to run on an endpoint, preventing unauthorized or malicious
applications from executing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701,
9th Edition, page 254
Question # 2
A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing projectinformation on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will most likely beclassified? (Select two).
A. Private B. Confidential C. Public D. Operational E. Urgent F. Restricted
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and
business impact. Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification
schemes, but a common one is the following1:
Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk.
Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or
risk if disclosed.
Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause
significant harm or risk if disclosed.
Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe
harm or risk if disclosed.
In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing
project information on a fileshare. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and
restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious
damage to national security or public safety if disclosed. The government may also have
specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access
control, and auditing2. References: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701,
9th Edition, page 16-17 2: Data Classification Practices: Final Project Description Released
Question # 3
A network manager wants to protect the company's VPN by implementing multifactorauthentication that uses:. Something you know. Something you have. Something you areWhich of the following would accomplish the manager's goal?
A. Domain name, PKI, GeolP lookup B. VPN IP address, company ID, facial structure C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint D. Company URL, TLS certificate, home address
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of
authentication factors satisfies the manager’s goal of implementing multifactor
authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you
are.
Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s
knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a
security question. A password is a common example of something you know that
can be used to access a VPN12
Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s
possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a
smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have
that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be
used to access a VPN12
Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s
biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a
common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the
user’s identity to access a VPN12
References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and
Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, page 179
Question # 4
After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed thelog files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
A. Compensating B. Detective C. Preventive D. Corrective
Answer: B
Explanation: Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and
monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to
discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further
analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion
detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the
administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the
company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or
network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can
provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.
References:
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”,
bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies,
including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
14: “Detective controls are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity
or anomalies on a system or network.”
Control Types – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 2.1 - Professor Messer IT …, under
“Detective Controls”: “Detective controls are security measures that are designed
to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or
network.”
Question # 5
A user is attempting to patch a critical system, but the patch fails to transfer. Which of thefollowing access controls is most likely inhibiting the transfer?
A. Attribute-based B. Time of day C. Role-based D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation: The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only
have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent
unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the
patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate
permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the
transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the
user or process the necessary access rights for the patching
An administrator finds that all user workstations and servers are displaying a message thatis associated with files containing an extension of .ryk. Which of the following types ofinfections is present on the systems?
A. Virus B. Trojan C. Spyware D. Ransomware
Answer: D
Explanation: Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s files and
demands a ransom for the decryption key. The ransomware usually displays a message on
the infected system with instructions on how to pay the ransom and recover the files. The
.ryk extension is associated with a ransomware variant called Ryuk, which targets large
After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:Server:192.168.14.6Service: TelnetPort: 23 Protocol: TCPStatus: Open Severity: HighVulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocolA security analyst performs the following test:nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 —script telnet-encryptionPORT STATE SERVICE REASON23/tcp open telnet syn-ackI telnet encryption:| _ Telnet server supports encryptionWhich of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?
A. It is a false positive. B. A rescan is required. C. It is considered noise. D. Compensating controls exist.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open
and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using
nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet
server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and
the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a
false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security
analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that
they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?
Question # 8
An organization would like to store customer data on a separate part of the network that isnot accessible to users on the main corporate network. Which of the following should theadministrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Segmentation B. Isolation C. Patching D. Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation: Segmentation is a network design technique that divides the network into
smaller and isolated segments based on logical or physical boundaries. Segmentation can help improve network security by limiting the scope of an attack, reducing the attack
surface, and enforcing access control policies. Segmentation can also enhance network
performance, scalability, and manageability. To accomplish the goal of storing customer
data on a separate part of the network, the administrator can use segmentation
technologies such as subnetting, VLANs, firewalls, routers, or
An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuitdue to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution that will allow it toreduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel accessto the data center and monitoring of remote employee internet traffic. Which of the followingwill help achieve these objectives?
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators
Answer: A
Explanation: SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service
that combines network and security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE can
help reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit by providing secure and optimized
access to the data center and cloud applications for remote employees. SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee internet traffic, regardless of
their location or device. SASE can offer benefits such as lower costs, improved
performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN
A company's end users are reporting that they are unable to reach external websites. Afterreviewing the performance data for the DNS severs, the analyst discovers that the CPU,disk, and memory usage are minimal, but the network interface is flooded with inboundtraffic. Network logs show only a small number of DNS queries sent to this server. Which ofthe following best describes what the security analyst is seeing?
A. Concurrent session usage B. Secure DNS cryptographic downgrade C. On-path resource consumption D. Reflected denial of service
Answer: D
Explanation: A reflected denial of service (RDoS) attack is a type of DDoS attack that
uses spoofed source IP addresses to send requests to a third-party server, which then
sends responses to the victim server. The attacker exploits the difference in size between
the request and the response, which can amplify the amount of traffic sent to the victim
server. The attacker also hides their identity by using the victim’s IP address as the source.
A RDoS attack can target DNS servers by sending forged DNS queries that generate large
DNS responses. This can flood the network interface of the DNS server and prevent it from
serving legitimate requests from end users. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 1
Question # 11
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a humanresources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?
A. Integrity B. Availability C. Confidentiality D. Non-repudiation
Answer: C
Explanation: Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from
unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants
users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform
their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human
resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate
need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can
prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing,
copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can
enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and nonrepudiation
are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on
a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized
modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is
accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is
the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions,
and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also
important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or
permissions granted to users or systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
Question # 12
Which of the following is the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network?
A. Bastion host B. Unsecured Bluetooth C. Unpatched OS D. Removable devices
Answer: D
Explanation: An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other
networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage.
However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as
USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the
air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware,
or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from
it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped
network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition,
Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1
Question # 13
An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted.The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domainuser. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?
A. Insider threat B. Social engineering C. Watering-hole D. Unauthorized attacker
Answer: A
Explanation: An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has
legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain
user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as
they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can
be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based ontheir responsibilities. The administrator also wants to apply the required access structurevia a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the siterecovery resource group?
A. RBAC B. ACL C. SAML D. GPO
Answer: A
Explanation: RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of
restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users.
RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting
access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle
of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other
options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access
based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA
Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1
Question # 16
During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranetaccount. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two specialcharacters. Once the password is created, the company will grant the employee access toother company-owned websites based on the intranet profile. Which of the following accessmanagement concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts andgrant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).
A. Federation B. Identity proofing C. Password complexity D. Default password changes E. Password manager F. Open authentication
Answer: A,C
Explanation: Federation is an access management concept that allows users to
authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or
organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials
and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them.
Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that
meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password
complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing
by making passwords harder to crack or guess. References: CompTIA Security+ Study
Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and 312-313 1
Question # 17
A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to completethe disposal. Which of the following should the company request from the vendor?
A. Certification B. Inventory list C. Classification D. Proof of ownership
Answer: A
Explanation: The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the
storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s policies
and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper
procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or
recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and
method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel
involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition,
Chapter 3, page 1441
Question # 18
Which of the following would be the best way to handle a critical business application thatis running on a legacy server?
A. Segmentation B. Isolation C. Hardening D. Decommissioning
Answer: C
Explanation:
A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware,
which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical business application is an
application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as
accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A legacy server running a critical business
application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or
exposed to potential threats.
One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to
harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to a
system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may
involve steps such as:
Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if
available
Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts
Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and
outbound traffic
Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage
Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or
malicious activity
Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application
Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from
unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and
availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent solution, and it may not
be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or
unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to plan for the eventual decommissioning or
migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible.
References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3:
Architecture and Design, Section 3.2: Secure System Design, Page 133 1; CompTIA
Explain the importance of secure system design, Subobjective: Legacy systems 2
Question # 19
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitivecustomer data. Which of the following should the administrator do first?
A. Block access to cloud storage websites. B. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments. C. Apply classifications to the data. D. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
Answer: C
Explanation: Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on
its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention
(DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying
classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and
rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection,
page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data
Protection, page 327.
Question # 20
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types ofsecurity incidents. Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
A. Set the maximum data retention policy. B. Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network. C. Review the documents' data classification policy. D. Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
Answer: D
Explanation: A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a
security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking
through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A
tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security
manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.
A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data.The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest.Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
A. Processor B. Custodian C. Subject D. Owner
Answer: C
Explanation: According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide,
data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by
an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their
data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data
subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data
subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that
perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying,
storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are
the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by
the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.
ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data
Security, page 511
Question # 22
After an audit, an administrator discovers all users have access to confidential data on afile server. Which of the following should the administrator use to restrict access to the dataquickly?
A. Group Policy B. Content filtering C. Data loss prevention D. Access control lists
Answer: D
Explanation: Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can
access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data
by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case,
the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and
prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to
