Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps

Cisco 350-401 Sample Question Answers

Question # 1

Which technology enables a redundant supervisor engine to take over when the primary supervisor engine fails?

 A. NSF 
B. graceful restart 
C. SSO
 D. FHRP

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Question # 2

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A. transmit power 
B. noise floor 
C. EIRP 
D. antenna gain 
E. RSSI 

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Question # 3

Which technology enables a redundant supervisor engine to take over when the primary supervisor engine fails?

A. NSF 
B. graceful restart 
C. SSO 
D. FHRP

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Question # 4

Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

A. Policing 
B. Marking 
C. Queueing 
D. Classification 

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Question # 5

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

A. 0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29 
B. 00:05:0c:07:ac:41
 C. 004:41:73:18:84:29 
D. 00:00:0c:07:ac:29 

Show Answer

Question # 6

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 12 use?

A. 00 5e0c:07:ac:12
 B. 05:44:33:83:68:6c 
C. 00:00:0c:07:ac:0c 
D. 00:05:5e:00:0c:12 

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Question # 7

Which collection contains the resources to obtain a list of fabric nodes through the vManage API?

A. device management 
B. administration 
C. device inventory 
D. monitoring 

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Question # 8

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.) 

A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic 
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible 
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate 
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it 
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible 

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Question # 9

In a Cisco SD-Access environment, which function is performed by the border node?

A. Connect uteri and devices to the fabric domain. 
B. Group endpoints into IP pools. 
C. Provide reachability information to fabric endpoints. 
D. Provide connectivity to traditional layer 3 networks. 

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Question # 10

Why would a customer implement an on-premises solution instead of a cloud solution? 

A. On-premises Offers greater compliance for government regulations than cloud 
B. On-premises offers greater scalability than cloud. 
C. On-premises oilers shorter deployment time than cloud. 
D. On-premises is more secure man cloud. 

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Question # 11

In which way are EIGRP and OSPF similar?

A. They both support unequal-cost load balancing 
B. They both support MD5 authentication for routing updates. 
C. They nave similar CPU usage, scalability, and network convergence times.
 D. They both support autosummarization 

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Question # 12

What are two benefits of implementing a traditional WAN instead of an SD-WAN solution? (Choose two.)

A. comprehensive configuration standardization 
B. lower control plane abstraction 
C. simplify troubleshooting 
D. faster fault detection 
E. lower data plane overhead 

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Question # 13

Which security measure mitigates a man-in-the-middle attack of a REST API?

A. SSL certificates
 B. biometric authentication 
C. password hash 
D. non repudiotion feature 

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Question # 14

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF? 

A. Postman
 B. requests 
C. nccllent 
D. cURL 

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Question # 15

What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? 

A. initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically 
B. pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers 
C. onboarding of SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay 
D. gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers

Show Answer

Question # 16

Which two methods are used to interconnect two Cisco SD-Access Fabric sites? (Choose two.) 

A. SD-Access transit 
B. fabric interconnect 
C. wireless transit 
D. IP-based transit
 E. SAN transit 

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Question # 17

Which two methods are used to assign security group tags to the user in a Cisco Trust Sec architecture? (Choose two )

A. modular QoS 
B. policy routing 
C. web authentication 
D. DHCP
 E. IEEE 802.1x 

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Question # 18

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

A. iPsec 
B. Basic Auth 
C. GRE 
D. OAuth 2.0 

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Question # 19

What is the purpose of the weight attribute in an EID-lo-RLOC mapping?

A. it indicates the preference for using LISP over native IP connectivity. 
B. it determines the administrative distance of LISP generated routes in the RIB 
C. It identifies the preferred RLOC address family. 
D. it indicates the load-balancing ratio between CTRs of 9m earns priority. 

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Question # 20

Which two new security capabilities are introduced by using a next-generation firewall at the Internet edge? (Choose two.)

A. DVPN 
B. NAT 
C. stateful packet inspection 
D. application-level inspection 
E. integrated intrusion prevention

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Question # 21

An engineer must configure router R1 to validate user logins via RADIUS and fall back to the local user database if the RADIUS server is not available. Which configuration must be applied?

A. aaa authorization exec default radius local 
B. aaa authorization exec default radius 
C. aaa authentication exec default radius local 
D. aaa authentication exec default radius 

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Question # 22

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.) 

A. golden image selection 
B. automation backup 
C. proxy configuration 
D. application updates 
E. system update 

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Question # 23

What does the destination MAC on the outer MAC header identify in a VXLAN packet?

A. thee emote spine 
B. the next hop
 C. the leaf switch 
D. the remote switch 

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Question # 24

Which unit of measure is used to measure wireless RF SNR?

A. mW 
B. bBm 
C. dB 
D. dBi 

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Question # 25

A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal? 

A. Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0. 
B. Configure a local username with privilege level 15. 
C. Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0. 
D. Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level. 

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Question # 26

Which QoS queuing method transmits packets out of the interface in the order the packets arrive? 

A. custom 
B. weighted- fair
C. FIFO 
D. priority 

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Question # 27

What does the Cisco DNA Center Authentication API provide?

A. list of global issues that are logged in Cisco DNA Center 
B. access token to make calls to Cisco DNA Center 
C. list of VLAN names 
D. dent health status 

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Question # 28

What is one method for achieving REST API security?

A. using built-in protocols known as Web Services Security 
B. using a combination of XML encryption and XML signatures 
C. using a MD5 hash to verify the integrity 
D. using HTTPS and TLS encryption 

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Question # 29

What is a characteristic of a traditional WAN? 

A. low complexity and high overall solution scale 
B. centralized reachability, security, and application policies 
C. operates over DTLS and TLS authenticated and secured tunnels 
D. united data plane and control plane 

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Question # 30

Which LISP component decapsulates messages and forwards them to the map server responsible for the egress tunnel routers?

A. Ingress Tunnel Router 
B. Map Resolver 
C. Proxy ETR 
D. Router Locator 

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Question # 31

When a DNS host record is configured for a new Cisco AireOS WLC, which hostname must be added to allow APs to successfully discover the WLC?

A. CONTROLLER-CAPWAP-CISCO 
B. CISCO-CONTROLLER-CAPWAP 
C. CAPWAP-CISCO-CONTROLLER 
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER 

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Question # 32

What is one being of implementing a data modetag language?

A. accuracy of the operations performed 
B. uses XML style of data formatting 
C. machine-oriented logic and language-facilitated processing. 
D. conceptual representation to simplify interpretation. 

Show Answer

Question # 33

What do Chef and Ansible have in common?

A. They rely on a declarative approach. 
B. They rely on a procedural approach. 
C. They use YAML as their primary configuration syntax. 
D. They are clientless architectures. 

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Question # 34

An engineer must implement a configuration to allow a network administrator to connect to the console port of a router and authenticate over the network. Which command set should the engineer use?

A. aaa new-model aaa authentication login default enable 
B. aaa new-model aaa authentication login console local 
C. aaa new-model aaa authentication login console group radius 
D. aaa new-model aaa authentication enable default

Show Answer

Question # 35

Which device is responsible for finding EID-to-RLOC mappings when traffic is sent to a LISP-capable site?

A. map server 
B. map resolver 
C. ingress tunnel router 
D. egress tunnel router 

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Question # 36

How does Cisco Express Forwarding switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table. 
B. Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor. 
C. Cisco Express Forwarding swithing saves memory by storing adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory. 
D. Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses the MAC address table. 

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Question # 37

Which element is unique to a Type 2 hypervisor?

A. memory
 B. VM OS
 C. host OS 
D. host hardware 

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Question # 38

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

A. operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels 
B. requires manual secure tunnel configuration 
C. uses unique per-device feature templates 
D. uses control connections between routers 

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Question # 39

Which solution supports end to end line-rate encryption between two sites?

A. IPsec 
B. TrustSec 
C. MACseC 
D. GRE

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Question # 40

Which two features are available only in next-generation firewalls? (Choose two.)

A. virtual private network 
B. deep packet inspection 
C. stateful inspection 
D. application awareness 
E. packet filtering 

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Question # 41

Which action limits the total amount of memory and CPU that is used by a collection of VMs?

A. Place the collection of VMs in a resource pool.
 B. Place the collection of VMs in a vApp. 
C. Limit the amount of memory and CPU that is available to the cluster. 
D. Limit the amount of memory and CPU that is available to the individual VMs. 

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Question # 42

What is a benefit of Cisco TrustSec in a multilayered LAN network design? 

A. Policy or ACLS are nor required. 
B. There is no requirements to run IEEE 802.1X when TrustSec is enabled on a switch port. 
C. Applications flows between hosts on the LAN to remote destinations can be encrypted. 
D. Policy can be applied on a hop-by-hop basis. 

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Question # 43

Which mechanism can be used to enforce network access authentication against an AAA server if the endpoint does not support the 802.1X supplicant functionality?

A. private VLANs 
B. port security 
C. MAC Authentication Bypass 
D. MACsec

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Question # 44

What does the statement print(format(0.8, '.0%')) display?

A. 80% 
B. 8% 
C. .08% 
D. 8.8% 

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Question # 45

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

A. RSSI 
B. dBI 
C. SNR 
D. EIRP

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Question # 46

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

A. with the VLAN 
B. with the MAC address
 C. with the IP address 
D. with the security group tag 

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Question # 47

A switch is attached to router R1 on its gig 0/0 interface. Fort security reasons, you want to prevent R1 from sending OSPF hellos to the switch. Which command should be enabled to accomplish this? 

A. R1(config-router)#ip ospf hello disable 
B. R1(config-router)#ip ospf hello-interval 0 
C. R1(config)#passive-interface Gig 0/0 
D. R1(config-router)#passive-interface Gig 0/0 

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Question # 48

What is one role of the VTEP in a VXLAN environment?

A. to forward packets to non-LISP sites 
B. to encapsulate the tunnel 
C. to maintain VLAN configuration consistency 
D. to provide EID-to-RLOC mapping 

Show Answer

Question # 49

Which device, in a LISP routing architecture, receives and de-encapsulates LISP traffic for endpoints within a LISP-capable site?

A. MR
 B. ETR 
C. OMS 
D. ITR 

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Question # 50

A company recently decided to use RESTCONF instead of NETCONF and many of their NETCONF scripts contain the operation (operation=”create”).Which RESTCONF operation must be used to replace these statements?

A. POST 
B. GET 
C. PUT 
D. CREATE 

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Question # 51

A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco access point managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analysis for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?

A. angle of arrival 
B. hyperlocation 
C. trilateration 
D. presence 

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Question # 52

What is one characteristic of Cisco DNA Center and vManage northbound APIs?

A. They push configuration changes down to devices. 
B. They implement the RESTCONF protocol. 
C. They exchange XML-formatted content. 
D. They implement the NETCONF protocol. 

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Question # 53

What is a benefit of using segmentation with TrustSec? 

A. Packets sent between endpoints on a LAN are encrypted using symmetric key cryptography. 
B. Firewall rules are streamlined by using business-level profiles. 
C. Integrity checks prevent data from being modified in transit.
 D. Security group tags enable network segmentation. 

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Question # 54

Which DNS lookup does an AP perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

A. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.Iocal 
B. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.Iocal 
C. CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER.Iocal 
D. CISCO-CONTROLLER.Iocal 

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Question # 55

Which mobility role is assigned to a client in the client table of the new controller after a Layer 3 roam?

A. anchor 
B. foreign 
C. mobility 
D. transparent

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Question # 56

What is an advantage of utilizing data models in a multivendor environment? 

A. lowering CPU load incurred to managed devices 
B. improving communication security with binary encoded protocols 
C. facilitating a unified approach to configuration and management 
D. removing the distinction between configuration and runtime state data 

Show Answer

Question # 57

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA center loses connectivity to devices in the SDACCESS fabric? (Choose two

A. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center 
B. Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect 
C. User connectivity is unaffected D. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance 
E. Users lose connectivity

Show Answer

Question # 58

Which of the following are examples of Type 2 hypervisors? (Choose three.)

A. VMware ESXi 
B. Oracle VirtualBox 
C. Oracle Solaris Zones 
D. Microsoft Hyper-V 
E. Microsoft Virtual PC 

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Question # 59

When is GLBP preferred over HSRP?

A. When encrypted helm are required between gateways h a single group. 
B. When the traffic load needs to be shared between multiple gateways using a single virtual IP. 
C. When the gateway routers are a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco routers 
D. When clients need the gateway MAC address lo Be the same between multiple gateways 

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Question # 60

A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC located in a DMZ. Which action is needed to ensure that the EolP tunnel remains in an UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster?

A. Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports. 
B. Enable default gateway reachability check. 
C. Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs. 
D. Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured. 

Show Answer

Question # 61

How do cloud deployments compare to on-premises deployments?

A. Cloud deployments provide a better user experience across world regions, whereas onpremises deployments depend upon region-specific conditions 
B. Cloud deployments are inherently unsecure. whereas a secure architecture is mandatory for on-premises deployments. 
C. Cloud deployments mandate a secure architecture, whereas on-premises deployments are inherently unsecure. 
D. Cloud deployments must include automation infrastructure, whereas on-premises deployments often lack the ability for automation.

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Question # 62

Which language defines the structure or modelling of data for NETCONF and RESTCONF? 

A. YAM 
B. YANG
 C. JSON 
D. XML 

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Question # 63

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? Choose two.)

A. Enable port security on the switch port.
 B. Configure an IP helper-address on the router interface. 
C. Utilize DHCP option 17. 
D. Configure WLC IP address LAN switch. 
E. Utilize DHCP option 43.

Show Answer

Question # 64

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SDAccess fabric? (Choose two)

A. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance. 
B. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center. 
C. Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect 
D. Users lose connectivity. 
E. User connectivity is unaffected. 

Show Answer

Question # 65

Which two functions is an edge node responsible for? (Choose two.)

A. provides multiple entry and exit points for fabric traffic 
B. provides the default exit point for fabric traffic 
C. provides the default entry point for fabric traffic 
D. provides a host database that maps endpoint IDs to a current location 
E. authenticates endpoints

Show Answer

Question # 66

Which hypervisor requires a host OS to run and is not allowed to directly access the hosts hardware and resources?

A. native 
B. bare metal 
C. type 1 
D. type 2 

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Question # 67

What is a client who is running 802.1x for authentication reffered to as?

A. supplicant 
B. NAC device 
C. authenticator 
D. policy enforcement point 

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Question # 68

In lhe Cisco DNA Center Image Repository, what is a golden image?

A. The latest software image that is available for a specific device type 
B. The Cisco recommended software image for a specific device type. 
C. A software image that is compatible with multiple device types. 
D. A software image that meets the compliance requirements of the organization. 

Show Answer

Question # 69

Where is the wireless LAN controller located in a mobility express deployment?

A. There is no wireless LAN controller in the network. 
B. The wireless LAN controller is embedded into the access point. 
C. The wireless LAN controller exists in the cloud. 
D. The wireless LAN controller exists in a server that is dedicated for this purpose. 

Show Answer

Question # 70

Which access control feature does MAB provide?

A. user access based on IP address 
B. allows devices to bypass authenticate* 
C. network access based on the physical address of a device 
D. simultaneous user and device authentication 

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Question # 71

What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric 
B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric 
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric 
D. It provides integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments 

Show Answer

Question # 72

When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role? 

A. when a stack member fails 
B. when the stack primary is reset 
C. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack 
D. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value 

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Question # 73

Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI? 

A. provisioning a wireless LAN controller 
B. creating a configuration template 
C. upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software 
D. graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center 

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Question # 74

An engineer is configuring RADIUS-Based Authentication with EAP. MS-CHAPv2 is configured on a client device. Which outer method protocol must be configured on the ISE to support this authentication type? 

A. EAP-TLS 
B. EAP-FAST 
C. LDAP
 D. PEAP 

Show Answer

Question # 75

Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment? 

A. The router with the shortest uptime
 B. The router with the lowest IP address 
C. The router with the highest IP address 
D. The router with the longest uptime 

Show Answer

Question # 76

A customer has a wireless network deployed within a multi-tenant building. The network provides client access, location-based services, and is monitored using Cisco DNA Center. The security department wants to locate and track malicious devices based on threat signatures. Which feature is required for this solution?

A. Cisco aWIPS policies on the WLC 
B. Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center 
C. malicious rogue rules on the WLC 
D. malicious rogue rules on Cisco DNA Center

Show Answer

Question # 77

In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints? 

A. DHCP 
B. VXLAN 
C. SXP 
D. LISP 

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Question # 78

What is the rose of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WN environment? 

A. it performs authentication and authorization 
B. it manages the control plane. 
C. it is the centralized network management system
 D. it manages the data plane 

Show Answer

Question # 79

A network administrator is preparing a Python scrip to configure a Cisco IOS XE-based device on the network. The administrator is worried that colleagues will make changes to the device while the script is running. Which operation of he in client manager prevent colleague making changes to the device while the scrip is running? 

A. m.lock(config=’running’)
 B. m.lock(target=’running’) 
C. m.freeze(target=’running’) 
D. m.freeze(config=’running’) 

Show Answer

Question # 80

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.) 

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbour
 B. broadcasting on the local subnet 
C. DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain 
D. DHCP Option 43 
E. querying other APs 

Show Answer

Question # 81

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 30 use? 

A. 00:05:0c:07:ac:30 
B. 00:00:0c:07:ac:1e 
C. 05:0c:5e:ac:07:30 
D. 00:42:18:14:05:1e 

Show Answer

Question # 82

Which free application has the ability to make REST calls against Cisco DNA Center? 

A. API Explorer 
B. REST Explorer 
C. Postman 
D. Mozilla 

Show Answer

Question # 83

Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks? 

A. signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm 
B. signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm 
C. signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm 
D. signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm

Show Answer

Question # 84

How is a data modelling language used? 

A. To enable data to be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated.
 B. To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed. 
C. To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure 
D. To provide human readability to scripting languages 

Show Answer

Question # 85

Which technology reduces the implementation of STP and leverages both unicast and multicast? 

A. VSS 
B. VXLAN 
C. VPC 
D. VLAN 

Show Answer

Question # 86

What is the result when an active route processor fails that combines NSF with SSO? 

A. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.
B. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes.
C. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network. 
D. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete. 

Show Answer

Question # 87

What is difference between TCAM and the MAC address table? 

A. TCAM is used to make Lalyer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables. 
B. The MAC address table supports partial matches .TCAM requires an exact match. 
C. The MAC address table is contained in CAM.ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM. 
D. Router prefix lookups happens in CAM.MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM. 

Show Answer

Question # 88

How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions? 

A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch. 
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure. 
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges. 
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device. 

Show Answer

Question # 89

A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured properly: however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP- enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue? 

A. Enable Aironet IE. 
B. Enable passive client. 
C. Disable AAA override. 
D. Disable FlexConnect local switching. 

Show Answer

Question # 90

Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? 

A. vBond 
B. cSmart 
C. vManage 
D. WAN Edge 

Show Answer

Question # 91

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer 
B. service timestamps log uptime 
C. logging host 
D. terminal monitor 

Show Answer

Question # 92

What is the recommended minimum SNR for Voice applications for networks? 

A. 15 
B. 20 
C. 25 
D. 10 

Show Answer

Question # 93

Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

 A. marking 
B. shaping 
C. policing 
D. classification 

Show Answer